How do I get reference of the <div> id and title from a external JS by using the code below:
function recordedEvent() {
var v_Id = $(this).attr('Id');
var v_Title = $(this).attr('Title');
var o = { Title : v_Title, ObjectId : v_Id };
alert(JSON.stringify(o));
}
The function is called in the HTML with a onclick called box1().
Code in CplTemplateSetup.js is where I want to run the function from into the HTML:
content_left_30_four_click_images_right_70_head_content_template.html
Any help would be appreciated.
P.S.: JSON data (zip archive)
Well the most obvious problem is that you don't have a closing parenthesis after your callback.. otherwise the code looks good
Edit
window.lastClickedBoxData = {}; // just reassign that within your function
or
window.runThisWhenClicked = function () {
var v_Id = $(this).attr('Id');
var v_Title = $(this).attr('Title');
var o = { Title : v_Title, ObjectId : v_Id };
};
then just
$(".box").click(window.runThisWhenClicked);
I don't think that the problem that you're facing would be apparent to anyone who doesn't view your code.
You defined a function within a script tag, in the html, and called that function in the onclick attribute of the box being clicked on. To that function, this refers to the box that was clicked on. From there, you call a function within an external js document. In that function, this refers to the window object. In other words, for the code that you posted, $(this) is a jquery instance of the window object which doesn't have the attributes that you're looking for, such as id and title, so they're blank.
To see what I'm talking about open the console and add the following line of code to each of your functions:
console.log(this);
If you're having trouble doing that, the following code should work as well, but it's not as good for debugging:
alert(this);
You need all of your code to be in the html script tag or in the external document. Also, you shouldn't define the function to be called during a click event using onclick within the html. It's better to do it using javascript or jquery so that your javascript is completely separate from your html.
EDIT: You shouldn't update your question with an answer. You should edit the original question with this information so that anyone having a similar problem can find the solution. I'd have commented on the answer directly, but I don't have the reputation to do this.
Related
So as you might know, Razor Syntax in ASP.NET MVC does not work in external JavaScript files.
My current solution is to put the Razor Syntax in a a global variable and set the value of that variable from the mvc view that is making use of that .js file.
JavaScript file:
function myFunc() {
alert(myValue);
}
MVC View file:
<script language="text/javascript">
myValue = #myValueFromModel;
</script>
I want to know how I can pass myValue directly as a parameter to the function ? I prefer to have explicit calling with param than relying on globals, however I'm not so keen on javascript.
How would I implement this with javascript parameters? Thanks!
Just have your function accept an argument and use that in the alert (or wherever).
external.js
function myFunc(value) {
alert(value);
}
someview.cshtml
<script>
myFunc(#myValueFromModel);
</script>
One thing to keep in mind though, is that if myValueFromModel is a string then it is going to come through as myFunc(hello) so you need to wrap that in quotes so it becomes myFunc('hello') like this
myFunc('#(myValueFromModel)');
Note the extra () used with razor. This helps the engine distinguish where the break between the razor code is so nothing odd happens. It can be useful when there are nested ( or " around.
edit
If this is going to be done multiple times, then some changes may need to take place in the JavaScript end of things. Mainly that the shown example doesn't properly depict the scenario. It will need to be modified. You may want to use a simple structure like this.
jsFiddle Demo
external.js
var myFunc= new function(){
var func = this,
myFunc = function(){
alert(func.value);
};
myFunc.set = function(value){
func.value = value;
}
return myFunc;
};
someview.cshtml
<script>
myFunc.set('#(myValueFromModel)');
myFunc();//can be called repeatedly now
</script>
I often find that JavaScript in the browser is typically conceptually tied to a specific element. If that's the case for you, you may want to associate the value with that element in your Razor code, and then use JavaScript to extract that value and use it in some way.
For example:
<div class="my-class" data-func-arg="#myValueFromModel"></div>
Static JavaScript:
$(function() {
$('.my-class').click(function() {
var arg = $(this).data('func-arg');
myFunc(arg);
});
});
Do you want to execute your function immediately? Or want to call the funcion with the parameter?
You could add a wrapper function with no parameter and inside call your function with the global var as a parameter. And when you need to call myFunc() you call it trough myFuncWrapper();
function myFuncWrapper(){
myFunc(myValue);
}
function myFunc(myParam){
//function code here;
}
I am new to javascript & jQuery. I'm trying to create a feature for my site that let's people display badges they have earned on their own site (and I would supply a bit of code they could just copy/paste). I had someone help me with the javascript and I have it working perfectly, but I can't find any jQuery documents that explains it to me?
<script type="text/javascript">
(function(id) {
// include js via php file with the id in as a parameter
})("myid");
</script>
The id is passed in the area labeled "myid", in jQuery can you pass in a static variable this way? When I try to delete ("myid") and change it to var id = 'myid', the function no longer works.
The occurrence of "myid" in the code you are showing is not a static variable. It is a string literal that is being passed as an argument to an anonymous function. The anonymous function is declared and then is immediately getting called.
If you are wondering why the programmer wrote the JavaScript the way they did. The following might help.
Both of the examples below will display "myid" in an alert:
Example 1:
<script type="text/javascript">
var id = 'myid';
alert(id);
</script>
Example 2:
<script type="text/javascript">
(function(id) {
alert(id);
})('myid');
</script>
The first example declares "id" as a variable. It is a global variable and is actually added as a property to the window object. The second example defines an anonymous function and immediately calls it, passing in 'myid' as the value of the "id" parameter. This technique avoids using a global variable.
Of course, you could also avoid the global variable by doing the following:
<script type="text/javascript">
(function() {
var id = 'myid';
alert(id);
})();
</script>
If you stick "myid" in a variable and then pass in that variable, it'll work. Like this:
var memberID = "myid";
(function(id) {
// include js via php file with the id in as a parameter
})(memberID);
If you say this...
(function(id) {
// include js via php file with the id in as a parameter
})(var id = 'myid');
...you're attempting to stick a variable declaration in a function call, which won't work. That's why declaring the variable above and apart from the function call won't throw any errors.
Pretty noobish question, and I'm probably thinking about this wrong, but...
Is there a way to pass a javascript object (or a reference to it) to a javascript function within the HTML markup?
For example:
<script type="text/javascript">
var myObject = new Object();
$('body').append('<div onclick=testThis(' + myObject + ')></div>');
function testThis(object)
{
console.log(object);
}
</script>
The markup ends up looking something like this when I inspect it:
<div onclick="testThis([object Object])">
Additional context:
The real use case is a search page in which I am querying SOLR via AJAX and get a result back as JS objects. When the user clicks on the HTML markup representing one of these search results, I want to be able to pass the object(or a reference to it) to a separate JS function for processing.
Am I thinking about this the wrong way?
No, you can't embed a reference to an object into markup.
Instead you probably would like to setup your click event listening in Javascript/jQuery:
var object = new Object();
$('<div/>').appendTo('body').click(function() {
testThis(object);
});
function testThis(value) {
console.log(value);
}
I have a pretty specific question. I am trying to implement an onclick and cross domain tracking within a block of text, but it looks like it may need to be put directly into a .js document. I don't have a lot of JS experience. Basically, the current code looks like:
// JavaScript Document
function popup_no_status(loc)
{
var windowW=1000
var windowH=700
s = "width="+windowW+",height="+windowH+",status=yes, resizable=yes, scrollbars=yes";
mywin = window.open(loc ,'CBE', s);
mywin.focus();
}
What I want to add to this is:
onclick="pageTracker._trackEvent('Button', 'Click', 'QuickSearchWidget'); pageTracker._link(this.href); return false;
Can I just add it to the end of the document before the closing bracket? Any Ideas?
Much appreciated!
As long as the object pageTracker is defined and instantiated, you can call its methods like any other function:
function popup_no_status(loc) {
var s = "width=700,height=1000,status=yes, resizable=yes, scrollbars=yes";
var mywin = window.open(loc ,'CBE', s);
mywin.focus();
pageTracker._trackEvent('Button', 'Click', 'QuickSearchWidget');
pageTracker._link(this.href);
}
Also, the variables windowW and windowH are pointless in your example code - there is no need to store the string values in a variable if all you're going to do is concatenate them into another string. Further, unless you intend the mywin and s variables to be global, you should use the var keyword before defining them - that restricts the variables to the function scope instead of the global scope (all variables declared in a function without the var keyword are considered global).
If the code above gives an error like ReferenceError: pageTracker is not defined, that means that the code in which the pageTracker object is defined is either not included on the page, or it has not been instantiated.
Now... as for onClick, I am not clear what you're after here. Do you want this function to run when someone clicks the document? That would get pretty annoying!
I have an object defined using literal notation as follows (example code used). This is in an external script file.
if (RF == null) var RF = {};
RF.Example= {
onDoSomething: function () { alert('Original Definition');} ,
method1 : function(){ RF.Example.onDoSomething(); }
}
In my .aspx page I have the following ..
$(document).ready(function () {
RF.Example.onDoSomething = function(){ alert('New Definition'); };
RF.Example.method1();
});
When the page loads the document.ready is called but the alert('Original Definition'); is only ever shown. Can someone point me in the right direction. I basically want to redefine the onDoSomething function. Thanks, Ben.
Edit
Thanks for the comments, I can see that is working. Would it matter that method1 is actually calling another method that takes the onDoSomething() function as a callback parameter? e.g.
method1 : function(){
RF.Example2.callbackFunction(function() {RF.Example.onDoSomething();});
}
Your code as quoted should work (and does: http://jsbin.com/uguva4), so something other than what's in your question is causing this behavior. For instance, if you're using any kind of JavaScript compiler (like Closure) or minifier or something, the names may be being changed, which case you're adding a new onDoSomething when the old one has been renamed. Alternately, perhaps the alert is being triggered by something else, not what you think is triggering it. Or something else may have grabbed a reference to the old onDoSomething (elsewhere in the external script, perhaps) and be using it directly, like this: http://jsbin.com/uguva4/2.
Thanks for the response .. in the end the answer was unrelated to the code posted. Cheers for verifying I wasn't going bonkers.