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can a PHP file injected by JQuery load() into a DIV find out anything about this DIV?

Suppose I go
$( '#' + subform_id ) .load( "subform.php" );
where '#' + subform_id is the ID of a DIV
... is there any way the PHP in subform.php can find out, within its PHP code, the identity of the DIV? (e.g. using its own JS code <script> section)
Or otherwise refer to it by some mechanism without knowing its ID? (e.g. to use JQ's append())
Obviously I could pass the subform_id as a param of the data object (2nd param of load()). But I'm just wondering...
later
followed up on what I thought Victor2748 was suggesting... but in fact it was the ID of a <SCRIPT> block in the injected file which I used to gain access to the existing JS DOM.
Victor2748: if you read this, I'm not sure how you could know the "id of the parent container of your subform.php page" without somehow passing this id as a param in the load() function's data object...
even later
Every comment in this thread says something intelligent! In fact, concerning the question of specifying that this is a PHP file, I'm still trying to get my head around something: obviously it is possible to access the DOM when JS runs in the client. But if your PHP code needs to know the name of the DIV into which it's being loaded I believe you do indeed have to pass this through _POST or _GET. I think there are many reasons why injected PHP code might need this sort of info, e.g. so it can contain code which at some point injects more PHP into the same DIV...
Although... clearly that injection code will inevitably use a JS/JQ script, so maybe that would be the appropriate time to find out what you need about where you are in the DOM.

In JavaScript, you can use this.parentNode to get the parent container, and use this.parentNode.id to get the parent div's id.
Here is an example how your loaded block can get itself as an object/node:
var loadedBlock = document.getElementById("nameOfYourDownloadedParentContainer")
Then you can use loadedBlock.parentNode to get its parent element, then you can get any parameter from it, to identify the element/div.
Update:
First you need to get the node of the current executing <script> tag:
var arrScripts = document.getElementsByTagName('script');
var currentScriptTag = arrScripts[arrScripts.length - 1];
Then, to get the parent of the script tag, use: currentScriptTag.parentNode
(I did not test it yet, please tell me if it helped)

I think so... if you have a script tag in subform.php and the file has the following HTML: Submit form, you should be able to:
var subformId = $('#mydiv').parent().id;
It would work because the script tag executes when the PHP file is included. Put the script tag at the end of subform.php to be sure.

Basic JQuery syntax: What mechnaic is at work in this small (2 line) piece of JavaScript / JQuery

So here' s the piece of code. I'm very new to JavaScript so don't be afraid to explain the obvious
$(".my-css-class").on("click", function() {
($(this).attr("data-property-1"), $(this).attr("data-property-2"), this);
});
There's an element in the .jsp page that looks like this:
<i class="clickMe"></i>
I know the .jsp creates a link-icon, and that the above JavaScript is an event handler. I know that it passes these 3 values as arguments another JavaScript method:
function doStuff(prop1, prop2, obj) {
if (prop1 == 'foo') {
//do stuff with prop2
}
else{
// do stuff with obj
}
}
It all works fine. What I want to know is what exactly is going on to make it work? I can't find anything in the code that connects what the event-handler returns to the 'doStuff' java-script function.
The names are totally different, so it's not reflection, it can't be parameter matching because there's other functions with the same number and type of parameters in the file, it can't be convention based because it still works if I find/replace the name of the function to gibberish.
I guess basically I'm asking what this line is doing:
($(this).attr("data-property-1"), $(this).attr("data-property-2"), this);
tl;dr: I'm at a loss, I know how the properties get as far as the onClick event-handler's anonymous function - but how does JavaScript know to pass them as arguments the to the doStuff() function?

the onClick event is a standard event triggered on click of any clickable html element and is automatically raised by the DOM.
You are hooking in to this by listening on any matched ".my-css-class" elements for an onClick Event.
The jquery syntax ".on" has been simplified over time and allows you to hook into any number of events like "submit" - OnSubmit event , or "load" - onLoad Event
Wherever your on("click", myFunction) event hook is picked up, your myFunction will execute.
Looking at your second point...
because it still works if I find/replace the name of the function to gibberish.
The DoStuff function will be found and replaced across all files in your site? or page? or open tabs? , so therefore it must exist somewhere as "doStuff(" or "giberish(".
so when you do a global find/replace, do each one slowly, until you locate it.
Finally, when you do a view source in the browser, this should either explicitly show you the doStuff function, or at the very least give you a clue as to satelite files loaded at runtime, where you can go and investigate.
Use firebug in firefox to debug loaded resources; the ".net tab" to view external loaded resources and the html/javascript they might contain. (for example: your master page might be loading in an embeded resource that contains the doStuff method, becuase of a user or server control reference in that master page)
Also have a look at this:
http://www.developerfusion.com/article/139949/debugging-javascript-with-firebug/
You can step through the javascipt piece by peice until it hits the doStuff method.
Just remember to set at least 1 breakpoint ;-)

Get ajax value from JavaScript function

I'm not an JS developer, so forgive me if this is a stupid question.
I have this web application, that uses ajax to keep the data update on the screen, but I'm not able to use the ajax value in my JS function, the code generated by my application is:
<span id="c0"></span>
In the web page I just see the numeric value, e.g. 5 and it's updated every second as expected, so I tried to use the same in my JS function:
<script type="text/javascript">
function getPoint()
{
console.log ('<span id="c0"></span>');
return 0;
}
</script>
But in the Chrome's log I just see <span id="c0"></span> instead of a numeric value.

Try the following:
<script type="text/javascript">
function getPoint()
{
var span_element = document.getElementById("c0");
var content = span_element.innerHTML;
console.log(content);
return content;
}
</script>
Explanation:
First you need to access the DOM element of javascript. You identified the element with the id: "c0". To access the element you need to use the function: document.getElementById("someID");
With the element you can do a lot of things. In this case you want to access whatever is inside the tag , so what you want is its inner HTML.
If you are using JQuery, you can also get its content like this:
var span_element = $("#c0");
var content = span_element.text();

Console.log simply logs whatever string you send it as a parameter. So what you are seeing is the expected behavior.
Assuming you are using jQuery, and the ajax returned value is being displayed in the span (id = "c0"), this console.log statement should work:
console.log($("#c0").text());
$("#c0") returns the jQuery object using the id selector (#).

Javascript retrieve absolute XPATH via ID of Node

Hello am trying to retrieve the XPATH of a document via the ID of the node, I saw this to be a simple matter when looking at the code a simple:
//iframe[#id=key];
But it won't work, I've tried every combination of syntax I can think of and not luck, the print out is "undefined". This is my code
function getNode(htmlURL, filename, xpath, callback){
var key = filename+xpath;
var frame = document.getElementById(key);
frame.addEventListener("load", function(evt){
var value= frame.contentDocument.evaluate(xpath, frame.contentDocument, null,9,null);
if(value!=null){
callback(value);
}
}, false);
frame.contentWindow.location.href = htmlURL;
}
function init(htmlURL, filename, xpath){
getNode(htmlURL, filename, xpath, function(node) { console.debug(node.outerHTML); });
}
Am trying to get the xpath inside the iframe, so I thought I'd have to point it to the xpath to the iframe first

If you want to find an element inside of an iframe then you need to use the evaluate method on the document in the iframe e.g.
frame.contentDocument.evaluate(xpath, frame.contentDocument, null,9,null)
But if you set the src to load an HTML document don't expect to be able to access nodes in the document in your code setting the src, instead set up an onload event handler to wait until the document has been loaded. In the event handler you can then access the nodes in the loaded document.

You are getting undefined because your xpath syntax translates to a code comment in JavaScript.
What you probably want is:
var finalxpath = "//iframe[#id=key]";
Note the quote characters which makes your xpath a string literal value.

ckeditor find in getdata

Does anyone know how you can access the DOM from an HTML page you got from the ckeditors getdata function, using javascript?
For instance:
function Delete_ftv_from_text(mfv_id)
{
var content=CKEDITOR.instances.editor1.getData();
content.getelementbyid(mfv_id);
}
So rather then accessing the document.getElementById I want to get the element out of the text from ckeditor, in this case the div element with an id that I get into my function.
The code above of course doesn't function.

You can access the DOM directly from the containing page:
var el = CKEDITOR.instances['editor1'].document.$.getElementById(id);
// do what you want with el